مواضيع المحاضرة: cases
background image

Cases on meningitis 

Case (1): 

A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-day history of fever, 
headache, altered mental status and vomiting. His past medical history is significant for renal 
transplantation secondary to polycystic kidney disease, hypertension, and diabetes. He takes 
aspirin, insulin, nifedipine, cyclosporine and prednisone. He has no known drug allergies. His 
temperature is 39 .2C (1 02 .5F), pulse is 1 02/min. respirations are 18/min. and blood pressure is 
120/75 mm Hg. He is alert but confused. Fundoscopy does not show any abnormalities. His neck 
is stiff. Lungs are clear to auscultation. He has a normal S1 and S2 with a II/IV systolic ejection 
murmur heard best in the right infraclavicular area. Complete blood count shows a WBC count 
of 17 OOO/cm3 with neutrophilic leukocytosis. His blood is drawn and sent for culture. Lumbar 
puncture is performed and the results are pending. Which of the following is the most 
appropriate empiric antibiotic therapy for this patient?  

A.  Ceftriaxone  
B.  Ceftriaxone and vancomycin  
C.  Cefotaxime and ampicillin  
D.  Ceftriaxone, vancomycin and ampicillin  
E.  Ceftazidime and vancomycin 

Explanation:  

Empiric treatment of meningitis is tailored to the patient's age group and the clinical situation, 
since the most likely causative organisms vary in different settings. The above patient has signs 
and symptoms of meningitis, appears sick, and has an elevated white count with a predominance 
of neutrophils. The presentation is acute; therefore, he most likely has acute bacterial meningitis. 
The most appropriate empiric antibiotic regimen is vancomycin. ceftriaxone. and ampicillin.  

Vancomycin + ceftriaxone are ideal for community-acquired bacterial meningitis in adults and 
children since it covers the three most frequent etiologic agents: Sfrepfococcus pneumoniae. 
Haemophi/us inf/uenzae, and Neisseria meningifidis. Many pneumococcal strains have become 
resistant to penicillin and cephalosporins; thus. vancomycin is needed in addition to ceftriaxone. 
Vancomycin alone does not sufficiently penetrate the blood-brain barrier.  

Ampicillin is included in the empiric regimen to cover Listeria monocyfogenes, which is also an 
important cause of meningitis in patients older than 55. Other patients who are at risk for Listeria 
meningitis include immunocompromised patients, patients with malignancies (especially 
lymphoma). and patients taking corticosteroids. 

 

So the answer is D 


background image

Case (2): 

An 18-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of acute onset of headache, 
muscle pains, and nausea. She has had these symptoms for one day, soon after returning from a 
college camping trip. The illness started with fever and muscle pains that progressed to include 
headache and nausea over the next several hours. She says that she went hiking twice during the 
trip and participated in many outdoor activities with her friends. She has no other medical 
problems. Her temperature is 38 .9•c ( 1 02.F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, 
and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows a stiff neck with pain to passive flexion. 
Careful inspection reveals few purpuric lesions on both legs. Examination of the cerebrospinal 
fluid ( CSF) reveals  

Glucose 20 mg/dl Protein 175 mg/dl WBC 2000/cmm  

Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?  

A.  Neurosyphilis  
B.  Pneumococcal meningitis 
C.  Rocky Mountain spotted fever 
D.  Meningococcal infection 

Explanation:  

This otherwise healthy patient presents with sudden onset of fever, stiff neck, headache, nausea, 
and myalgias, worrisome for bacterial meningitis. The hypotension, tachycardia, myalgias, and 
purpuric skin lesions suggest meningococcal meningitis with meningococcemia, which can 
develop within several hours of the initial meningitis. Myalgias more commonly occur in 
meningococcal meningitis than other bacterial causes and can be more intense and painful than 
the myalgias caused by viral influenza.  

The CSF findings of elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, elevated protein level, and 
decreased glucose level are indicative of bacterial meningitis. Viral meningitis may present with 
similar symptoms but is usually not associated with purpura. The CSF findings also tend to show 
normal glucose, mild elevation of protein (usually < 150 mg/dl), and WBC count <250/cmm. 
This patient has CSF findings consistent with bacterial meninaitis and the hvootension and skin 
lesions most consistent with disseminated meninaococcemia. 

This otherwise healthy patient presents with sudden onset of fever, stiff neck, headache, nausea, 
and myalgias, worrisome for bacterial meningitis. The hypotension, tachycardia, myalgias, and 
purpuric skin lesions suggest meningococcal meningitis with meningococcemia, which can 
develop within several hours of the initial meningitis. Myalgias more commonly occur in 
meningococcal meningitis than other bacterial causes and can be more intense and painful than 
the myalgias caused by viral influenza. 

  


background image

The CSF findings of elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, elevated protein level, and 
decreased glucose level are indicative of bacterial meningitis. Viral meningitis may present with 
similar symptoms but is usually not associated with purpura. The CSF findings also tend to show 
normal glucose, mild elevation of protein (usually < 150 mg/dL), and WBC count <250/cmm. 
This patient has CSF findings consistent with bacterial meningitis and the hypotension and skin 
lesions most consistent with disseminated meningococcemia. 

 

So the answer is D 

 




رفعت المحاضرة من قبل: حسن بحر
المشاهدات: لقد قام 156 عضواً و 644 زائراً بقراءة هذه المحاضرة








تسجيل دخول

أو
عبر الحساب الاعتيادي
الرجاء كتابة البريد الالكتروني بشكل صحيح
الرجاء كتابة كلمة المرور
لست عضواً في موقع محاضراتي؟
اضغط هنا للتسجيل